I don’t know how relevant FDIC is to the 1%; it only covers 250k, and only in things like checking and savings accounts and CDs: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federal_Deposit_Insurance_Corporation
Most of the 1% wealth is probably tied up in things like stocks and real estate, or maybe they diversify all over the place.
My understanding is that intention is not uncommonly litigated; I believe the question of “intent to deceive” is central to trademark law, for example. That’s also what the the “degrees” of murder etc are about.
Disclaimer: I’m not a lawyer. I do read an awful lot of contacts and talk to lawyers.
As always, there is a relevant XKCD: https://xkcd.com/345/
Ah gotcha, that makes sense. Thanks.